The abstract, entitled Intralesional Injection of Melanoma with Rose Bengal Induces Regression of Untreated Synchronous Melanoma in a Murine Model, will be presented at the Society of Surgical Oncology Annual Meeting (March 21-24) in Orlando. The full abstract (i.e., the one paragraph that describes the work and outcome) is not yet publicly available, as far as I can tell.
Here's what comes to mind: the degree and proportion of such reversion of tumor-state that the authors' use of the word regression implies:
- Complete regression? Partial regression? If so, a high degree or low degree? A combination of several states of regression?
- What percentage of treated model tumors completed regressed? Regressed a lot? Partially regressed?